I understand that you need to forego Reckless Attack's advantage to reap the benefits of the effects/damage, but if the creature is prone or you have some other means to gain advantage, would you still get advantage? Or, is Brutal Strike considered an instance of imposing disadvantage on yourself, so therefore no additional outside sources of advantage could overcome it. I think this interpretation would drastically affect what sort of weapons you chose to bring, specifically thinking of the Topple mastery. Thanks! :]
Brutal Strike very explicitly says you can "forgo any Advantage". That means any advantage on the attack goes away. Any.
Brutal Strike is not considered "an instance of imposing disadvantage on yourself", and it also specifically says you can't use it if the attack has disadvantage.
Brutal Strike very explicitly says you can "forgo any Advantage". That means any advantage on the attack goes away. Any.
What funny is that even with your highlight, it still doesn't clarify the sentence. The use of "any" in this sentence is actually ambiguous. It can mean "any one of them", just like it can mean "all of them". And in every party I've been that had a Barbarian in it, the DM always ruled that "any" is meant in the sense of "any one of them".
Brutal Strike very explicitly says you can "forgo any Advantage". That means any advantage on the attack goes away. Any.
What funny is that even with your highlight, it still doesn't clarify the sentence. The use of "any" in this sentence is actually ambiguous. It can mean "any one of them", just like it can mean "all of them". And in every party I've been that had a Barbarian in it, the DM always ruled that "any" is meant in the sense of "any one of them".
That's fine as a house rule, but that isn't how advantage works in the official rules. You don't have multiple advantages; you either have advantage or you don't. To use Brutal Strike, you have to give the advantage up and not have advantage anymore.
While the sentence could be read both ways outside of the context of D&D rules, reading it the way you're describing requires you to be using the concept of advantage in a way that's contrary to the official rules.
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I understand that you need to forego Reckless Attack's advantage to reap the benefits of the effects/damage, but if the creature is prone or you have some other means to gain advantage, would you still get advantage? Or, is Brutal Strike considered an instance of imposing disadvantage on yourself, so therefore no additional outside sources of advantage could overcome it. I think this interpretation would drastically affect what sort of weapons you chose to bring, specifically thinking of the Topple mastery. Thanks! :]
Brutal Strike very explicitly says you can "forgo any Advantage". That means any advantage on the attack goes away. Any.
Brutal Strike is not considered "an instance of imposing disadvantage on yourself", and it also specifically says you can't use it if the attack has disadvantage.
pronouns: he/she/they
Thanks, I think that does clear up any ambiguity.
What funny is that even with your highlight, it still doesn't clarify the sentence. The use of "any" in this sentence is actually ambiguous. It can mean "any one of them", just like it can mean "all of them".
And in every party I've been that had a Barbarian in it, the DM always ruled that "any" is meant in the sense of "any one of them".
That's fine as a house rule, but that isn't how advantage works in the official rules. You don't have multiple advantages; you either have advantage or you don't. To use Brutal Strike, you have to give the advantage up and not have advantage anymore.
While the sentence could be read both ways outside of the context of D&D rules, reading it the way you're describing requires you to be using the concept of advantage in a way that's contrary to the official rules.
pronouns: he/she/they