This situation came up in a session of mine a few days ago. If a villain/monster casts the shield spell, that provokes the mage slayer opportunity attack.
Then for the opportunity attack, would it use the monster AC before the shield spell or after? I’m assuming before because that’s how mage slayer would work with misty step and invisibility, but am I just confused?
Carric Aquissar, elven wannabe artist in his deconstructionist period (Archfey warlock) Lan Kidogo, mapach archaeologist and treasure hunter (Knowledge cleric) Mardan Ferres, elven private investigator obsessed with that one unsolved murder (Assassin rogue) Xhekhetiel, halfling survivor of a Betrayer Gods cult (Runechild sorcerer/fighter)
Since the wording in the feat says 'casts' and it's not an opportunity attack, wouldn't the spell have to be fully cast, whether shield, misty step, or invisibility before an attack could be made.
It's the opportunity attack that works the other way, interrupting the turn before the spell is complete to allow an attack of opportunity.
Or have I got it somehow mixed up?
You have it right. Unless a feature that grants a reaction specifically mentions otherwise the reaction occurs after the trigger.
Counterspell and Opportunity Attacks are the most common reactions that are resolved before their triggers. Though thanks to Polearm Master this isn't true of all Opportunity Attacks, the Opportunity Attacks granted by Polearm Master are resolved after their trigger.
I’m assuming before because that’s how mage slayer would work with misty step and invisibility, but am I just confused?
As other have said, it doesn't work that way. Using the attack from Mage Slayer against a creature that casts Misty Step or Invisibility would have the attack be made AFTER the spell is cast (and thus for these spells potentially have no target or be at disadvantage).
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This situation came up in a session of mine a few days ago. If a villain/monster casts the shield spell, that provokes the mage slayer opportunity attack.
Then for the opportunity attack, would it use the monster AC before the shield spell or after? I’m assuming before because that’s how mage slayer would work with misty step and invisibility, but am I just confused?
Thanks for any help!
The attack would happen after the spell is cast, so it would be against the boosted AC
From the DMG
EDIT: Note too that the Mage Slayer reaction attack is specifically not an opportunity attack
Active characters:
Carric Aquissar, elven wannabe artist in his deconstructionist period (Archfey warlock)
Lan Kidogo, mapach archaeologist and treasure hunter (Knowledge cleric)
Mardan Ferres, elven private investigator obsessed with that one unsolved murder (Assassin rogue)
Xhekhetiel, halfling survivor of a Betrayer Gods cult (Runechild sorcerer/fighter)
As AntonSirius said, the order would go as follow;
1. hero attack villain
2. villain casts Shield , and has +5 AC until the start of its next turn,
3. hero use reaction to make a melee weapon attack against villain,
Note that Mage Slayer is not an Opportunity Attack, it's an attack made as a reaction which is not the same thing.
You have it right. Unless a feature that grants a reaction specifically mentions otherwise the reaction occurs after the trigger.
Counterspell and Opportunity Attacks are the most common reactions that are resolved before their triggers. Though thanks to Polearm Master this isn't true of all Opportunity Attacks, the Opportunity Attacks granted by Polearm Master are resolved after their trigger.
As other have said, it doesn't work that way. Using the attack from Mage Slayer against a creature that casts Misty Step or Invisibility would have the attack be made AFTER the spell is cast (and thus for these spells potentially have no target or be at disadvantage).