There is no set price in the rules. Check with your DM.
If I was DM, I'd probably put it at around 40 gold.
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This is going to be up to your DM. However, for guidance, there are several different tiers of dictionary one might want to purchase, each of which will have different prices. At the top end, you have things like the Oxford English Dictionary—the best dictionary you can get, the OED’s corporeal edition is some 20 volumes long and contains a huge number of words, etymological history, and historical examples of use. If you want something like that, expect to shell out a pretty penny - the real world version will set you back over a thousand dollars, and I think a DM could reasonably ask for a few hundred (or even over a thousand) gold or so for something that would be pretty difficult to print.
A lesser dictionary, such as the Merriam-Webster’s Colligate Dictionary goes for about twenty real-world dollars—far less than its superior, more bulky cousin. Depending on the scarcity of books in your world, I would not expect a single volume dictionary to cost much more than a regular book.
I would have to ask, if I were your DM, what sort of dictionary you are looking to buy. A straight up Webster's Dictionary of the English Language would be different in price than an Elvish to Common Dictionary.
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Prior to the prolifertion of Gutenberg's printing press books were exceedingly rare (as was the ability to read them).
From 1450 the printing press was used commercially (it was invented in 1440 and then perfectec over the next decade) and created a bit of a boom in the availability of books, at least in the areas close to Mainz, spreading from there.
Before that the copying of books was largely something monks would do, and it was a time and labour intensive manual process
I've never actually given any thought to whether the printing press has been invented (by gnomes?) in Faerun or the other worlds of D&D....
If the average working Joe makes 1 silver a day, and is - propably - illiterate, that does something for the demand for dictionaries. If the book itself is hand-written and illuminated, that does something for the supply. Also, the guy writing the dictionary wants more than 1 silver a day, he is after all a trained professional. So let's say our scribe copies a dictionary of 100 pages, at one page a day (with illuminations), so that's 100 days of work at 2 silver a day, making it 20 gold. Sales price is likely twice that, so 40 gold, as someone else stated.
Didn't account for paper, ink and binding, though. Maybe 50 or 60 is better?
On the other hand, if most people can read and write and do sums, and the printing press has been invented, that changes everything.
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Blanket disclaimer: I only ever state opinion. But I can sound terribly dogmatic - so if you feel I'm trying to tell you what to think, I'm really not, I swear. I'm telling you what I think, that's all.
The “average joe” is most probably not illiterate in the common sense of the word. When they say that most people back in the day were illiterate, what they meant was that they couldn’t read or write Latin. They could all mostly read and write their own native languages.
If you're not willing or able to to discuss in good faith, then don't be surprised if I don't respond, there are better things in life for me to do than humour you. This signature is that response.
The “average joe” is most probably not illiterate in the common sense of the word. When they say that most people back in the day were illiterate, what they meant was that they couldn’t read or write Latin. They could all mostly read and write their own native languages.
Pray tell, which widely available public school did they attend, then? Here, in Denmark, up until 1814, there was precisely zero public schooling. Although, from 1536 the nobility were obliged to offer some unspecified 'alms' education, it widely wasn't - and also, the peasants (like +90% of the population) didn't go, because they were busy farming so they wouldn't die*.
So .. please enlighten me.
I'll add a little detail: I've never, anywhere heard anyone equating literacy with latin.
* I'll amend that thusly: In some parts of the country (where education was made available within walking distance, to be precise), some children went to school for as long as they were A) old enough to learn, while also B) too young to work. So for much of history, some children had a whopping 4 years of school.
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Blanket disclaimer: I only ever state opinion. But I can sound terribly dogmatic - so if you feel I'm trying to tell you what to think, I'm really not, I swear. I'm telling you what I think, that's all.
They obviously didn’t attend public school, but just as obviously one doesn’t have to in order to learn. Where did I learn the original meaning of the word “literate?” Catholic school, as it was part of my religious education as to part of why the Mass stopped being said in Latin and the printing of the Bible in peoples native languages rather than only being printed in Latin.
They obviously didn’t attend public school, but just as obviously one doesn’t have to in order to learn. Where did I learn the original meaning of the word “literate?” Catholic school, as it was part of my religious education as to part of why the Mass stopped being said in Latin and the printing of the Bible in peoples native languages rather than only being printed in Latin.
Looking into the etymology of the word, this is correct. The term first saw use in the 1500s and did at the time refer specifically to the ability to read and understand Latin. It was not until the early 1800s that its use shifted to indicate a lack of familiarity with literature and/or the ability to read and write. Thank you for sharing.
They obviously didn’t attend public school, but just as obviously one doesn’t have to in order to learn. Where did I learn the original meaning of the word “literate?” Catholic school, as it was part of my religious education as to part of why the Mass stopped being said in Latin and the printing of the Bible in peoples native languages rather than only being printed in Latin.
Looking into the etymology of the word, this is correct. The term first saw use in the 1500s and did at the time refer specifically to the ability to read and understand Latin. It was not until the early 1800s that its use shifted to indicate a lack of familiarity with literature and/or the ability to read and write. Thank you for sharing.
Sure, but since it’s 2022, any modern discussion of historical literacy rates will refer to being able to read or write any language.
They obviously didn’t attend public school, but just as obviously one doesn’t have to in order to learn. Where did I learn the original meaning of the word “literate?” Catholic school, as it was part of my religious education as to part of why the Mass stopped being said in Latin and the printing of the Bible in peoples native languages rather than only being printed in Latin.
Looking into the etymology of the word, this is correct. The term first saw use in the 1500s and did at the time refer specifically to the ability to read and understand Latin. It was not until the early 1800s that its use shifted to indicate a lack of familiarity with literature and/or the ability to read and write. Thank you for sharing.
Sure, but since it’s 2022, any modern discussion of historical literacy rates will refer to being able to read or write any language.
True, but since historically many if not most people could read and write their own native languages, I was correct when the subject first came up:
If the average working Joe makes 1 silver a day, and is - propably - illiterate, that does something for the demand for dictionaries. If the book itself is hand-written and illuminated, that does something for the supply. Also, the guy writing the dictionary wants more than 1 silver a day, he is after all a trained professional. So let's say our scribe copies a dictionary of 100 pages, at one page a day (with illuminations), so that's 100 days of work at 2 silver a day, making it 20 gold. Sales price is likely twice that, so 40 gold, as someone else stated.
Didn't account for paper, ink and binding, though. Maybe 50 or 60 is better?
On the other hand, if most people can read and write and do sums, and the printing press has been invented, that changes everything.
The “average joe” is most probably not illiterate in the common sense of the word. When they say that most people back in the day were illiterate, what they meant was that they couldn’t read or write Latin. They could all mostly read and write their own native languages.
Keep in mind that the worlds of D&D aren't Earth, and do not follow their history. Though, I understand that many people play with a classical reflection of a medieval context.
Literacy (modern usage),specifically "speaking, reading, and writing", are considered default for races that include language proficiencies in their racial traits, according to the players handbook. Especially young children could be exempted from this for realism, but that is not addressed.
Keep in mind that the worlds of D&D aren't Earth, and do not follow their history.
Literacy (modern usage),specifically "speaking, reading, and writing", are considered default for races that include language proficiencies in their racial traits, according to the players handbook. Reasonably young children could be exempted from this for realism, but that is not addressed.
For NPCs as well?
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How much gold would a dictionary cost in game?
A mundane book costs 25 gold. If the contents are more obscure, the DM might increase the price to represent that.
There is no set price in the rules. Check with your DM.
If I was DM, I'd probably put it at around 40 gold.
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Need help with Homebrew? Check out ✨ this FAQ/Guide thread ✨ by IamSposta.
This is going to be up to your DM. However, for guidance, there are several different tiers of dictionary one might want to purchase, each of which will have different prices. At the top end, you have things like the Oxford English Dictionary—the best dictionary you can get, the OED’s corporeal edition is some 20 volumes long and contains a huge number of words, etymological history, and historical examples of use. If you want something like that, expect to shell out a pretty penny - the real world version will set you back over a thousand dollars, and I think a DM could reasonably ask for a few hundred (or even over a thousand) gold or so for something that would be pretty difficult to print.
A lesser dictionary, such as the Merriam-Webster’s Colligate Dictionary goes for about twenty real-world dollars—far less than its superior, more bulky cousin. Depending on the scarcity of books in your world, I would not expect a single volume dictionary to cost much more than a regular book.
I would have to ask, if I were your DM, what sort of dictionary you are looking to buy. A straight up Webster's Dictionary of the English Language would be different in price than an Elvish to Common Dictionary.
Cum catapultae proscriptae erunt tum soli proscript catapultas habebunt
I usually treat a blank book as the listed price of a book (25gp), and then the contents can increase the price by 5-25gp.
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Are books in D&D printed or "Illuminated"?
Prior to the prolifertion of Gutenberg's printing press books were exceedingly rare (as was the ability to read them).
From 1450 the printing press was used commercially (it was invented in 1440 and then perfectec over the next decade) and created a bit of a boom in the availability of books, at least in the areas close to Mainz, spreading from there.
Before that the copying of books was largely something monks would do, and it was a time and labour intensive manual process
I've never actually given any thought to whether the printing press has been invented (by gnomes?) in Faerun or the other worlds of D&D....
If the average working Joe makes 1 silver a day, and is - propably - illiterate, that does something for the demand for dictionaries. If the book itself is hand-written and illuminated, that does something for the supply. Also, the guy writing the dictionary wants more than 1 silver a day, he is after all a trained professional. So let's say our scribe copies a dictionary of 100 pages, at one page a day (with illuminations), so that's 100 days of work at 2 silver a day, making it 20 gold. Sales price is likely twice that, so 40 gold, as someone else stated.
Didn't account for paper, ink and binding, though. Maybe 50 or 60 is better?
On the other hand, if most people can read and write and do sums, and the printing press has been invented, that changes everything.
Blanket disclaimer: I only ever state opinion. But I can sound terribly dogmatic - so if you feel I'm trying to tell you what to think, I'm really not, I swear. I'm telling you what I think, that's all.
The “average joe” is most probably not illiterate in the common sense of the word. When they say that most people back in the day were illiterate, what they meant was that they couldn’t read or write Latin. They could all mostly read and write their own native languages.
Creating Epic Boons on DDB
DDB Buyers' Guide
Hardcovers, DDB & You
Content Troubleshooting
I'd be interested to see data for that.
If you're not willing or able to to discuss in good faith, then don't be surprised if I don't respond, there are better things in life for me to do than humour you. This signature is that response.
Pray tell, which widely available public school did they attend, then? Here, in Denmark, up until 1814, there was precisely zero public schooling. Although, from 1536 the nobility were obliged to offer some unspecified 'alms' education, it widely wasn't - and also, the peasants (like +90% of the population) didn't go, because they were busy farming so they wouldn't die*.
So .. please enlighten me.
I'll add a little detail: I've never, anywhere heard anyone equating literacy with latin.
* I'll amend that thusly: In some parts of the country (where education was made available within walking distance, to be precise), some children went to school for as long as they were A) old enough to learn, while also B) too young to work. So for much of history, some children had a whopping 4 years of school.
Blanket disclaimer: I only ever state opinion. But I can sound terribly dogmatic - so if you feel I'm trying to tell you what to think, I'm really not, I swear. I'm telling you what I think, that's all.
They obviously didn’t attend public school, but just as obviously one doesn’t have to in order to learn. Where did I learn the original meaning of the word “literate?” Catholic school, as it was part of my religious education as to part of why the Mass stopped being said in Latin and the printing of the Bible in peoples native languages rather than only being printed in Latin.
Creating Epic Boons on DDB
DDB Buyers' Guide
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Cheers for the replies. Just for clarification this in a bog standard dictionary not a translation dictionary.
It's going to be a spell component.
https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/1730713-idiomsyncracy
Here it is if anyone wants a look.
In this case, you should require a price appropriate for the power level of the spell (e.g a dictionary worth 300g, whatever that implies)
What are some example use cases for that spell? Depending on interpretation, it looks like it could be way overpowered.
A lot of idioms also make no literal sense on their own, so it is really unclear what activating this spell would do 95% of the time.
Looking into the etymology of the word, this is correct. The term first saw use in the 1500s and did at the time refer specifically to the ability to read and understand Latin. It was not until the early 1800s that its use shifted to indicate a lack of familiarity with literature and/or the ability to read and write. Thank you for sharing.
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Sure, but since it’s 2022, any modern discussion of historical literacy rates will refer to being able to read or write any language.
True, but since historically many if not most people could read and write their own native languages, I was correct when the subject first came up:
Creating Epic Boons on DDB
DDB Buyers' Guide
Hardcovers, DDB & You
Content Troubleshooting
Keep in mind that the worlds of D&D aren't Earth, and do not follow their history. Though, I understand that many people play with a classical reflection of a medieval context.
Literacy (modern usage),specifically "speaking, reading, and writing", are considered default for races that include language proficiencies in their racial traits, according to the players handbook. Especially young children could be exempted from this for realism, but that is not addressed.
For NPCs as well?
If you're not willing or able to to discuss in good faith, then don't be surprised if I don't respond, there are better things in life for me to do than humour you. This signature is that response.